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NEET 2020
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11. Two statements A and B are as follows:
A. Pitch of sound depends on the frequency of sound waves.
B. Quality of sound depends on the amplitude of sound waves.
Then which of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and B are true (b) A is false, B is true
(c) A is true, B is false (d) A is false, B is false

12. Sound produced by an open pipe contains
(a) all harmonics (b) even harmonics only
(c) odd harmonics only (d) no harmonic at all

13. An organ pipe, open at both ends, contains
(a) longitudinal travelling waves (b) longitudinal stationary waves
(c) transverse travelling waves (d) transverse stationary waves

14. In a closed organ pipe, the first overtone is equal to which harmonic of the fundamental frequency?
(a) First harmonic (b) Third harmonic
(c) Fifth harmonic (d) Any higher harmonic

15. Beats can occur in
(a) longitudinal waves only
(b) stationary waves only
(c) sound waves only
(d) waves of all nature under proper conditions
16. A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The velocity of sound is 300 m/s. The observer perceives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then n1 is equal to
(a) 10 n (b) 0 (c) 11 n (d) 0.1 n

17. The change in frequency due to Doppler effect does not depend on
(a) the speed of the observer
(b) the speed of the source
(c) the frequency of the source
(d) the distance between the source and the observer

18. To which disturbance does the human ear respond to?
(a) Pressure difference (b) Phase difference (c) Displacement (d) None of these

19. At a point, the pressure due to sound wave is maximum. Which of the following is true about that point?
(a) Displacement is zero (b) Displacement is maximum
(c) Nothing can be said about displacement (d) None of these

20. A man standing unsymmetrically between two parallel cliffs claps his hands and starts hearing series of echoes at intervals of 1 s. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, then the distance between the two cliffs is
(a) 340 m (b) 510 m (c) 680 m (d) 170 m
16. A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The velocity of sound is 300 m/s. The observer perceives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then n1 is equal to
(a) 10 n (b) 0 (c) 11 n (d) 0.1 n

17. The change in frequency due to Doppler effect does not depend on
(a) the speed of the observer
(b) the speed of the source
(c) the frequency of the source
(d) the distance between the source and the observer

18. To which disturbance does the human ear respond to?
(a) Pressure difference (b) Phase difference (c) Displacement (d) None of these

19. At a point, the pressure due to sound wave is maximum. Which of the following is true about that point?
(a) Displacement is zero (b) Displacement is maximum
(c) Nothing can be said about displacement (d) None of these

20. A man standing unsymmetrically between two parallel cliffs claps his hands and starts hearing series of echoes at intervals of 1 s. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, then the distance between the two cliffs is
(a) 340 m (b) 510 m (c) 680 m (d) 170 m
1. Ammonia gas can be dried by
(a) conc. H2SO4 (b) PCl5 (c) CaCl2 (d) quick lime

2. Which are the incorrect statement?
(a) NO is heavier than O2.
(b) The formula of heavy water is D2O.
(c) Nitrogen diffuses faster than oxygen through an orifice.
(d) NH3 can be used as refrigerant.

3. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCI can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce
(a) H2SO4 (b) KMnO4 (c) K2Cr2O7 (d) none of these

4. Which of the following statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is correct?
(a) It exists as AlCl3 molecules. (b) It is not easily hydrolysed.
(c) It sublimes at 100°C under vacuum. (d) It is a strong Lewis base.

5. Moderate electrical conductivity is shown by
(a) silica (b) graphite (c) diamond (d) carborundum
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6. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in presence of
(a) dry air (b) moisture (c) sunlight (d) pure oxygen

7. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating
(a) KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2 (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3

8. A gas that cannot be collected over water is
(a) N2 (b) O2 (c) SO2 (d) PH3

9. The compound which gives off oxygen on moderate heating is
(a) cupric oxide (b) mercuric oxide
(c) zinc oxide (d) aluminium oxide

10. The bonds present in N2O5 are
(a) only ionic (b) covalent and coordinate
(c) only covalent (d) covalent and ionic
11. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured gas?
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) N2O5 (d) NO2

12. Amongst the trihalides of nitrogen which one is least basic?
(a) NF3 (b) NCl3 (c) NBr3 (d) Nl3

13. Bromine can be liberated from potassium bromide solution by action of
(a) iodine solution (b) chlorine water (c) sodium chloride (d) potassium iodide

14. There is no S – S bond in
(a) S2O42– (b) S2O52– (c) S2O32– (d) S2O72–

15. In P4O10 each P atom is linked with .................... O atoms.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
16. H2SO4 cannot be used to prepare HBr from NaBr at it
(a) reacts slowly with NaBr (b) oxidises HBr
(c) reduces HBr (d) disproportionate HBr

17. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid produces
(a) two moles of sulphuric acid
(b) two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(c) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(d) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogen peroxide.

18. Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3?
(a) It is a covalent compound
(b) It contains Cs3+ and Br– ions.
(c) It contains Cs+ and Br3– ions.
(d) It contains Cs+, Br– and lattice Br2 molecule

19. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
(a) K+, F– and H+ (b) K+, F– and HF
(c) K+ and [HF2]– (d) [KHF]– and F–

20. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by
(a) reducing Na2SO4 solution with H2S
(b) boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in alkaline medium
(c) neutralising H2S2O3 solution with NaOH
(d) boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in acidic medium
21. Which of the following halides is least stable and has doubtful existence?
(a) CI4 (b) GeI4 (c) SnI4 (d) PbI4

22. Which one of the following oxides is neutral?
(a) CO (b) SnO2 (c) ZnO (d) SiO2

23. Which one of the following species is not a pseudohalide?
(a) CNO– (b) RCOO– (c) OCN– (d) NNN–

24. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water gives
(a) one mole of phoshine (b) two moles of phosphoric acid
(c) two moles of phosphine (d) one mole of phosphorus pentoxide

25. One heating ammonium dichromate, the gas evolved is
(a) oxygen (b) ammonia (c) nitrous oxide (d) nitrogen
26. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process is carried out
(a) in the present of NaCl
(b) in the presence of fluorine
(c) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
(d) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature

27. The number of P – O – P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is
(a) zero (b) two (c) three (d) four

28. Ammonia can be dried by
(a) conc. H2SO4 (b) P4O10
(c) CaO (d) anhydrous CaCl2

29. The correct order of acidic strength is
(a) Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10 (b) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(c) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 (d) K2O > CaO > MgO

30. The number of S – S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is
(a) three (b) two (c) one (d) zero
The answer key for P-block Elements is: p-block element
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. d 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. d
31. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they
(a) form soluble complexes with anionic species
(b) precipitate anionic species
(c) form soluble complexes with cationic species
(d) precipitate cationic species

32. For H3PO3 and H3PO4 the correct choice is
(a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing (b) H3PO3 is dibasic and non-reducing
(c) H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing (d) H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing

33. H3BO3 is
(a) monobasic and weak Lewis acid (b) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
(c) monobasic and strong Lewis acid (d) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid

34. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

35. The acid having O — O bond is
(a) H2S2O3 (b) H2S2O6 (c) H2S2O8 (d) H2S4O6
36. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore by
(a) carbon reduction and self reduction respectively
(b) self reduction and carbon reduction respectively
(c) electrolysis and self reduction respectively
(d) self reduction and electrolysis respectively

37. Name the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4– are shared is
(a) Pyrosilicate (b) Sheet silicate
(c) Linear chain silicate (d) Three dimensional silicate

38. Which is the most thermodynamically stable allotropic form of phosphorus?
(a) Red (b) White (c) Black (d) Yellow

39. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3?
(a) KI (b) FeSO4 (c) KMnO4 (d) K2MnO4


40. Which blue liquid is obtained on reacting equimolar amounts of two gases at –30°C?
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5
41. When PbO2 reacts with concentrated HNO3 the gas evolved is
(a) NO2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) N2O

42. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 + Na[B(OH4)] + H2O How can this reaction is made to proceed in forward direction?
(a) Addition of cis-1, 2-diol (b) Addition of borax
(c) Addition of trans-1, 2-diol (d) Addition of Na2HPO4.

43. The percentage of -character in the orbitals forming P – P bonds in P4 is
(a) 25 (b) 33 (c) 50 (d) 75

44. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives
(a) Na2S4O6 (b) NaHSO4 (c) NaCl (d) NaOH 51

45. The compounds used as refrigerant is/are
(a) NH3 (b) CCl4 (c) CF4 (d) CF2Cl2
1. Which of the following is the weakest base?
(a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) KOH (d) Zn(OH)2

2. One of the constituent of German silver is
(a) Ag (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Al

3. Which of the following dissolve in hot concentrated NaOH solution?
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Ag

4. How many unpaired electrons are present in Ni2+?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8

5. Iron is rendered passive by treatment with concentrated
(a) H2SO4 (b) H3PO4 (c) CHl (d) HNO3
6. In the metallurgy of iron, when limestone is added to the blast furnace, the calcium ion ends up in
(a) slag (b) gangue
(c) metallic calcium (d) calcium carbonate

7. Amongst the following, the lowest degree of paramagnetism per mole of the compound at 298K will be shown by
(a) MnSO4 . 4H2O (b) CuSO4 . 5H2O (c) FeSO4 . 6H2O (d) NiSO4 . 6H2O

8. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
(a) Cu2O (b) FeSiO3 (c) CuFeS2 (d) Cu2S + FeO

9. Among the following ion which one has the highest paramagnetism?
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (c) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Zn(H2O)6]2+

10. Which one is solder?
(a) Cu & Pb (b) Zn & Cu (c) Pb & Sn (d) Fe & Zn
11. Which pair gives Cl2 at room temperature?
(a) conc. HCl + KMnO4 (b) NaCl + conc. H2SO4
(c) NaCl + MnO2 (d) NaCl + conc. HNO3.

12. Which compound does not dissolve in hot, dilute HNO3?
(a) HgS (b) PbS (c) CuS (d) CdS

13. An aqueous solution of FeSO4, Al2(SO4)3 and chrome alum is heated with excess of Na2O2 and filtered. The materials obtained are
(a) a colourless filtrate and a green residue (b) a yellow filtrate and a green residue
(c) a yellow filtrate and a brown residue (d) a green filtrate and a brown residue

14. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti3+ (c) V3+ (d) Fe2+

15. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green coloured powder blown in the air is
(a) CrO3 (b) Cr2O3 (c) Cr (d) CrO(O2)
16. In the dichromate dianion,
(a) 4 Cr — O bonds are equivalent (b) 6 Cr — O bonds are equivalent
(c) all Cr — O bonds are equivalent (d) all Cr — O bonds are non-equivalent

17. The chemical processes in the production of steel from haematite ore involve
(a) reduction (b) oxidation
(c) reduction followed by oxidation (d) oxidation followed by reduction

18. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by
(a) heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in a stream of air
(b) heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas
(c) reaction of metallic iron with hydrochloric acid
(d) reaction of metallic iron with nitric acid

19. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and its colour is
(a) K2MnO4, purple green (b) KMnO4, purple
(c) Mn2O3, brown (d) Mn3O4, black

20. In the process of extraction of gold,
Roasted gold ore + CN– + H2O2 [X] + OH–
[X] + Zn  [Y] + Au
Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]
(a) X = [Au(CN)2]–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2– (b) X = [Au(CN)4]3–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
(c) X = [Au(CN)2]–, Y = [Zn(CN)6]4– (d) X = [Au(CN)4]–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
21. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in the compound Hg[Co(SCN)4] is
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 15 (d) 24

22. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is
(a) IO3– (b) I2 (c) IO– (d) IO4–

23. Which pair of compounds is expected to show similar colour in aqueous medium?
(a) FeCl2 and CuCl2 (b) VOCl2 and CuCl2
(c) VOCl2 and FeCl2 (d) FeCl2 and MnCl2

24. CuSO4 decolourises on addition of KCN, the product is
(a) [Cu(CN)4]2– (b) Cu2+ gets reduced to form [Cu(CN)4]3–
(c) Cu(CN)2 (d) CuCN.

25. Among the following metal crabonyls, the C – O bond order is lowest in
(a) [Mn(CO)6]+ (b) [Fe(CO)5] (c) [Cr(CO)6] (d) [V(CO)6]–.

26. Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen (c) carbon dioxide (d) argon