🩺 Q474: A skin scraping from a patient with tinea pedis is examined using 10% KOH. Microscopy reveals septate hyphae and arthroconidia. Which laboratory test would best differentiate Trichophyton rubrum from Trichophyton mentagrophytes?
Anonymous Quiz
8%
A) Urease test
50%
B) Germ tube test
33%
C) Oxidase test
8%
D) Catalase test
🩺 Q475: A stool sample from a traveler returning from Southeast Asia reveals a large, barrel-shaped egg with bipolar plugs. Which parasite is the most likely causative agent?
Anonymous Quiz
18%
Ascaris lumbricoides
45%
B) Trichuris trichiura
36%
C) Enterobius vermicularis
0%
D) Hookworm
🩺 Q476: A patient is suspected of having an acute Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection. Which of the following serological patterns would support an acute primary infection?
Anonymous Quiz
17%
A) VCA IgM positive, EBNA negative
83%
B) VCA IgG positive, EBNA positive
0%
C) VCA IgM negative, EBNA positive
0%
D) VCA IgG negative, EBNA negative
🩺 Q477: A sputum sample shows gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and produce DNase. The organism grows on nutrient agar at room temperature. What is the most likely identity?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
50%
B) Neisseria meningitidis
14%
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
14%
D) Haemophilus influenzae
🩺 Q478: During a routine examination of a peripheral blood smear, a technician notes ring forms within RBCs and the presence of crescent-shaped gametocytes. Which species is identified?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Plasmodium vivax
21%
B) Plasmodium ovale
71%
C) Plasmodium falciparum
7%
D) Plasmodium malariae
🩺 Q479: A patient with suspected food poisoning provides a stool sample. Culture on Thiosulfate-Citrate-Bile Salts-Sucrose (TCBS) agar yields yellow colonies. What is the most likely pathogen?
Anonymous Quiz
36%
A) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
43%
B) Vibrio cholerae
21%
C) Salmonella enterica
0%
D) Shigella sonnei
🩺 Q480: A patient experiences fever, chills, and hypotension shortly after the initiation of a red blood cell transfusion. What is the most likely type of reaction?
Anonymous Quiz
20%
A) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
40%
B) Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
40%
C) Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
0%
D) Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
🩺 Q481: A patient types as Rh positive in immediate spin, but the D-control is also positive. How should this result be interpreted?
Anonymous Quiz
33%
A) Rh positive
20%
B) Rh negative
47%
C) Invalid result; repeat testing
0%
D) Weak D positive
🩺 Q482: Which of the following blood components is the product of choice for a patient with a fibrinogen deficiency?
Anonymous Quiz
21%
A) Fresh Frozen Plasma
64%
B) Cryoprecipitate
0%
C) Platelet concentrate
14%
D) Leukoreduced red blood cells
🩺 Q483: What is the primary purpose of the 'major crossmatch' performed in the blood bank?
Anonymous Quiz
27%
A) To detect donor antibodies against patient antigens
60%
B) To detect patient antibodies against donor antigens
7%
C) To determine the ABO blood type of the donor
7%
D) To verify the Rh status of the donor unit
🩺 Q484: Which of the following antibodies is most frequently associated with severe HDFN requiring intrauterine transfusion?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
Anti-Lea
85%
B) Anti-D
15%
C) Anti-P1
0%
D) Anti-I
🩺 Q485: A patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) shows a positive DAT with anti-IgG. What does this indicate?
Anonymous Quiz
20%
A) In vivo sensitization of RBCs with IgG
47%
B) In vitro sensitization of RBCs with IgG
27%
C) The presence of free antibodies in the patient's serum
7%
D) A false-positive reaction due to complement
🩺 Q486: Which blood group system is associated with the expression of Lewis antigens (Lea and Leb) on the red blood cell membrane?
Anonymous Quiz
6%
ABO system
19%
B) Rh system
31%
C) Secretor system
44%
D) Lewis system
🩺 Q487: Which patient group requires irradiated blood components to prevent Transfusion-Associated Graft-Versus-Host Disease (TA-GVHD)?
Anonymous Quiz
13%
A) Patients with iron deficiency anemia
50%
B) Patients undergoing elective orthopedic surgery
31%
C) Immunocompromised patients
6%
D) Patients with ABO incompatibility
🩺 Q488: A patient has a positive antibody screen. Upon performing a panel, the technician observes that reactions occur at the AHG phase and are enhanced by enzyme-treated cells. Which antibody is likely?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
Anti-Fya
56%
B) Anti-M
38%
C) Anti-Jka
6%
D) Anti-S
🩺 Q489: A 35-year-old female presents with malar rash, joint pain, and fatigue. ANA testing by indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) on HEp-2 cells shows a homogeneous pattern. Which specific autoantibody is most commonly associated with this pattern in systemic lupus erythematosus?
Anonymous Quiz
31%
Anti-dsDNA
50%
B) Anti-centromere
13%
C) Anti-Jo-1
6%
D) Anti-Scl-70
🩺 Q490: A patient develops localized swelling and hives 20 minutes after a suspected allergen exposure. Which immunoglobulin isotype is primarily responsible for mediating this Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
Anonymous Quiz
29%
A) IgG
48%
B) IgE
19%
C) IgM
5%
D) IgA
🩺 Q490: [Hematology & Hemostasis Case] In automated hematology analyzers, the Coulter impedance principle detects cells by measuring:
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Light scatter intensity at 90 degrees
92%
B) Electrical resistance change as non-conductive cells pass an aperture
0%
C) Fluorescence emission after nucleic acid staining
8%
D) Radiofrequency conductivity absorption
🩺 Q491: [Hematology & Hemostasis Case] Which anticoagulant is the gold standard for routine Prothrombin Time (PT) and APTT testing?
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) K2-EDTA
7%
B) Lithium Heparin
93%
C) Sodium Citrate (3.2%, 0.109 M)
0%
D) Potassium Oxalate
🩺 Q492: [Hematology & Hemostasis Case (Series #2, Case #3)] In automated hematology analyzers, the Coulter impedance principle detects cells by measuring:
Anonymous Quiz
0%
A) Light scatter intensity at 90 degrees
85%
B) Electrical resistance change as non-conductive cells pass an aperture
15%
C) Fluorescence emission after nucleic acid staining
0%
D) Radiofrequency conductivity absorption