TVS shows marked free pelvic fluid and non-visualized gestational sac, and the patient has severe abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Your recommended management is:

A P1+0 presented by pelvic heaviness, frequency of micturition and delayed period for 3 days. HCG level was 400 mIU/ml. After 2 days, HCG was 780 mIU/ ml. Your diagnosis is:

A 19-year-old girl with pelvic pain, +ve pregnancy test and a 3cm living ectopic pregnancy in Rt fallopian tube, she had Lt salpingectomy for a previous ectopic. best management is:

Regarding disturbed tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following is correct?

Which of the following increases the risk for ectopic pregnancy?

A 40-year-old multipara attends for antenatal care as she had a delayed menstruation for 1 week. She did serum hCG twice, 1st reading was 3000 mIU/ml and the 2nd, two days later, was 5500 mIU/ml. How can you interpret these levels?

Which of the following is commonly associated with cervical incompetence?.

Abdominal examination of a 12 weeks PG according to her LMP, fundal level was found at level of umbilicus with a doughy uterus. Choose a possible cause:.b. c. d. e. .

A 25-year-old woman presents at 14 wks with mild vaginal bleeding and +ve pregnancy test. TVS shows a non-living intrauterine pregnancy. The most reasonable to offer her:a. b. c. d. e. .

The most consistent symptom of ectopic pregnancy is:

A 7 weeks pregnant patient presents with vaginal spotting, lower abdominal cramps. US shows a single fetus with +ve pulsations. PV shows a closed cervix. Appropriate management:

Regarding treatment of choriocarcinoma, choose the correct statement

The most common route for metastatic spread of choriocarcinoma is:a. b. c. d. e. .

Alarming event for the possibility of gestational trophoblastic disease include: