Medical Lab Technologistsβ„’ | Official
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πŸ§ͺπŸ€– MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNOLOGISTSβ„’ | OFFICIAL AI COMMUNITY

πŸ”¬ AI-Powered MLT Learning & Practice
πŸ“š Daily MCQs β€’ Answers β€’ Explanations
🩸 Hematology β€’ 🧬 Biochemistry
🦠 Microbiology β€’ 🩸 Blood Banking
πŸ€– AI Learning Assistant & Smart Quiz Practice
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🩺 MEDLAB BOT AI β€’ CLINICAL MLS MCQ
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πŸ“š Specialty: Hematology & Clinical Microscopy (#HematologyampClinicalMicroscopy)
🎯 Difficulty: Intermediate
πŸ”’ Item: #Q8

❓ QUESTION:
A 68-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis develops spontaneous, extensive subcutaneous hematomas. Coagulation testing reveals a normal PT of 12.0 seconds and an isolated prolonged APTT of 68 seconds. A 1:1 mixing study with normal pooled plasma yields an APTT of 31 seconds immediately upon mixing, but after incubating at 37Β°C for 2 hours, the APTT prolongs to 62 seconds. Which autoantibody is most likely responsible for these findings?

A) Factor VIII inhibitor
B) Lupus anticoagulant
C) Factor IX inhibitor
D) Factor XII inhibitor

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βœ… CORRECT ANSWER: Option A

πŸ’‘ CLINICAL RATIONALE & DIAGNOSTIC PEARLS:
Acquired Factor VIII inhibitors (neutralizing autoantibodies) characteristically exhibit time- and temperature-dependent kinetics. An initial 1:1 mix may appear corrected, but prolonged incubation at 37Β°C allows the antibody to progressively neutralize Factor VIII, re-prolonging the APTT. Lupus anticoagulants typically inhibit clotting immediately without requiring prolonged incubation, and factor deficiencies correct immediately and remain corrected after incubation.

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πŸ“’ MedLab Bot AI β€’ Official Clinical Series